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I by chance noted that I'm quoted on your website, and
in itself I've no problem with that. But as the post now stands outside of
the discussion thread, its info is incomplete. Perhaps your readers like
to hear the answer to the Q at teh end. The linguists told me that the
loss of D in Diovis (which ties in with Zeus(=Djews, Di[w]os)/Dyaus/
Dieus like I thought) is indeed a bit unregular, but certain. For the
comparisson of Jove and Jehovah [often made by esoterics!] not only
ignores the true vocalisation of the Hebrew name, but also the
oldest form of the Latin name: in *Old* Latin the Roman god was
called Diespiter (*Diov-pater, from Indo-European *diou-pHte:r) and
Diovis (*Dioue-, from the I-E root *dyeu-/*deiw-, "radiant, noble"),
which only *later* became Juppiter and Iovis (Jove).

kind regards,
Aayko Eyma

Btw, some months later, on the same ANE mailinglist, this overview
of the Hebrew divine name transliterated by Greek writers was posted
(note that the J is not the English J, but the German J, i.e. Y in

Diodorus Siculus writes Jao (I, 94);
Irenaeus ("Adv. Haer.", II, xxxv, 3, in P. G., VII, col. 840), Jaoth;
The Valentinian heretics (Ir., "Adv. Haer.", I, iv, 1, in P.G., VII,
col. 481), Jao;
Clement of Alexandria ("Strom.", V, 6, in P.G., IX, col. 60), Jaou;
Origin ("in Joh.", II, 1, in P.G., XIV, col. 105), Jao;
Porphyry (Eus., "Praep. evang", I, ix, in P.G., XXI, col. 72), Jeuo;
Epiphanius ("Adv. Haer.", I, iii, 40, in P.G., XLI, col. 685), Ja or
Pseudo-Jerome ("Breviarium in Pss.", in P.L., XXVI, 828), Jaho;
the Samaritans (Theodoret, in "Ex. quaest.", xv, in P. G., LXXX, col.
244), Jabe;
James of Edessa (cf.. Lamy, "La science catholique", 1891, p. 196),
Jehjeh; and
Jerome ("Ep. xxv ad Marcell.", in P. L., XXII, col. 429) speaks of
certain ignorant Greek writers who transcribed the Hebrew Divine
name II I II I. (A.J. MAAS, Catholic Encyclopedia, 1997)

I cannot resist pointing out that Josephus was writing in Greek
to Greek readers...meaning that when he said that the Name
was written in vowels, he IMO meant the *Greek* vowels (i-a-u-e)
that approximated/transliterated the Hebrew consonants (Y-H-W-H),
and did not mean Hebrew vowels, which were not known by his public,
and anyhow: Hebrew did not write any vowels as you know.

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